BillMarti wrote:It doesn't matter one house can not usurp the anothers authority. But 2 houses can by law go against 1. So the supreme court does not have the final authority period. You really don't know how the government is supposed to work do you devil? I do remember what I was taught before they dummed education down.
Bill S.
Devil505 wrote:Argue with this:
However, Marshall suggested that merely because a piece of legislation violates a constitutional principle does not necessarily mean that the legislation is unenforceable. "[W]hether an act repugnant to the constitution can become law of the land," Marshall noted, "is a question deeply interesting to the United States." Observing that the Constitution expressly delegates and limits the powers of Congress, Marshall asked, "To what purpose are powers limited, and to what purpose is that limitation committed to writing, if these limits may, at any time, be passed by those intended to be restrained?"
Marshall argued that the "distinction between a government with limited and unlimited powers is abolished if those limits do not confine the persons on whom they are imposed, and if acts prohibited and acts allowed are of equal obligation." Marshall continued:
It is a proposition too plain to be contested, that the constitution controls any legislative act repugnant to it; or, that the legislature may alter the constitution by an ordinary act…. Between these alternatives there is no middle ground. The constitution is either a superior, paramount law, unchangeable by ordinary means, or it is on a level with ordinary legislative acts, and like other acts, is alterable when the legislature shall please to alter it… . If the former part of the alternative be true, then a legislative act contrary to the constitution is not law: if the latter part be true, then written constitutions are absurd attempts, on the part of the people, to limit a power in its own nature illimitable.
For Marshall, the idea that an unconstitutional act of legislature could "bind the courts and oblige them to give it effect" was "an absurdity too gross to be insisted on." Thus, Marshall concluded that congressional legislation contrary to the federal Constitution is null and void and cannot be enforced by a court of law.
BillMarti wrote:But 2 houses can by law go against 1it's called checks a balances. So the supreme court does not have the final authority period.
jpete wrote:Thus, Marshall concluded that congressional legislation contrary to the federal Constitution is null and void and cannot be enforced by a court of law.
BillMarti wrote:Devil,
I can see by your response you know I'm correct because you always ask for a link and then you go on about how it's somebody elses interpretation. You are a sore loser as usual.
Bill S.
Devil505 wrote:jpete wrote:Thus, Marshall concluded that congressional legislation contrary to the federal Constitution is null and void and cannot be enforced by a court of law.
You're proving my point!
President ANDREW JACKSON once underscored this point when he exclaimed, "John Marshall has made his decision [in Worcester v. Georgia, 31 U.S. (6 Pet.) 515, 8 L. Ed. 483 (1832)], now let him enforce it!"
Devil505 wrote:BillMarti wrote:It doesn't matter one house can not usurp the anothers authority. But 2 houses can by law go against 1. So the supreme court does not have the final authority period. You really don't know how the government is supposed to work do you devil? I do remember what I was taught before they dummed education down.
Bill S.
You couldn't be more wrong if you tried.
Give me a link...not verbal diarrhea.
jpete wrote:No, I'm pretty sure I'm not.
jpete wrote:I never said that the court doesn't have judicial review. I said that the SCOTUS can't decide what the law "is".
jpete wrote:When to SCOTUS sides with the Constitution, they are right, when they rule against it, they are wrong.
Devil505 wrote:I'll end my participation in this silly fantasy world by asking a very simple question: If the SCOTUS does not have final authority to interpret what the founding fathers intended when they wrote the Constitution.....Who Does?
(ie who settled the case of what this 2nd amendment sentence meant?..."A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.")
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