" Article 2. [Private property subject to public use; owner to be paid]
That private property ought to be subservient to public uses when necessity requires it, nevertheless, whenever any person's property is taken for the use of the public, the owner ought to receive an equivalent in money."
Who is the authority tht has the "right" to deem if something is a "necessity"
and who says what the "equivalent" in money is? This type of eminent domain "stealing" is just wrong in my mind! if you own land or anything else for that matter, what gives ANYONE the right to "take" it from you unless YOU chose to sell it or give it to them?